Quote:
Originally Posted by buffalobillpatrick
NiHaoMike, I don't see how that can work?
That seems to assume that the refrigerant temperature going into the evaporator is exactly the temperature that ALL of the evaporation takes place?
Could't there be some sensible warming of the refrigerant in the input area of evaporator prior to the latient boiling?
Especially with a lot of Subcooling prior to TXV.
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Right after the TXV is the coldest the refrigerant will ever get. Entering the TXV is liquid at high pressure. Right after the TXV, the pressure is then low enough to cause the refrigerant to boil, dropping the temperature until it becomes equal to the boiling point at that pressure.
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